PSC Exam › Exam guides › WBMSC / KMC AE & SAE › Previous papers
All 100 questions from the WBMSC (KMC) Assistant Engineer (degree) Civil paper — Assistant Engineer (Civil) — 2016 — with the correct answer and a short explanation under each one. Tap Show answer after you have tried a question, or take it as a timed mock test scored +2 / −1 like the real exam.
| Paper | Assistant Engineer (Civil) — 2016 |
| Post | Assistant Engineer (degree) |
| Questions | 100 |
| Marking | +2 for a right answer, −1 for a wrong one; 90 minutes |
| Answers on this page | All 100 |
Q1.Increase in compactive effort causes
Answer: (c) Decrease in optimum moisture content and increase in dry unit weight
Higher compactive effort packs particles more densely at a lower water content — dry unit weight rises, OMC falls.
Q2.Area ratio of a sampler should be
Answer: (c) Less than 10%
IS code criterion for a good (near-undisturbed) sampler is an area ratio under 10%, so soil disturbance stays low.
Q3.Normal consistency of ordinary Portland cement is about
Answer: (c) 30%
Normal consistency of OPC is typically 26-33%, so ~30% is the standard textbook figure.
Q4.Slump recommended for mass concrete is about
Answer: (a) 25 to 50 mm
Mass concrete needs low workability to control heat of hydration and shrinkage; 25-50 mm slump is typical.
Q5.If Kx and Kz are the permeabilities in x and z directions respectively, effective permeability is given by
Answer: (a) Ke = √(Kx·Kz)
Effective permeability for flow across stratified layers uses the geometric mean, Ke = √(KxKz).
Q6.If the Mohr's circle for a given stress condition touches the failure envelope
Answer: (b) Incipient failure occurs
A Mohr circle just touching the failure envelope means stress is exactly at the failure condition — incipient failure, not yet failed.
Q7.Earth pressure on a wall due to 'at rest' condition is
Answer: (b) Greater than active and less than passive pressure
At-rest earth pressure coefficient K0 always lies between the active (Ka) and passive (Kp) values.
Q8.Maximum angle β of an infinite slope in a purely cohesionless soil is
Answer: (a) β = φ, angle of internal friction
For a cohesionless soil, the maximum stable infinite-slope angle equals the angle of internal friction φ (FS=1 when β=φ).
Q9.Crushing strength of a first class brick should not be less than
Answer: (c) 10.5 N/mm²
IS 1077 specifies a minimum crushing strength of 10.5 N/mm² for first class bricks.
Q10.Nominal size of modular brick is
Answer: (c) 200 mm x 100 mm x 100 mm
Nominal modular brick size (brick + 10mm mortar joint) is 200 × 100 × 100 mm; actual size is 190×90×90mm.
Q11.Number of bricks required for one cubic metre of brick masonry is
Answer: (c) 500
About 500 modular bricks are needed per cubic metre of brick masonry, accounting for mortar joints.
Q12.Angle of intersection of two plane mirrors of an optical square is
Answer: (b) 45°
An optical square's mirrors are set at 45° to each other, giving a 90° deviation of the sighted ray.
Q13.If the true bearing of a line AB is 269°30', the azimuth of line AB is
Answer: (d) 269°30'
Azimuth and whole-circle/true bearing are the same quantity measured clockwise from north, so the azimuth equals the given bearing, 269°30'.
Q14.Most commonly used retarder in cement is
Answer: (a) Gypsum
Gypsum is interground with clinker specifically to retard the otherwise near-instant setting of cement.
Q15.Percentage of carbon content in mild steel is
Answer: (a) Less than 0.25
Mild steel is classified by a carbon content below about 0.25%.
Q16.Slenderness ratio for masonry walls should not be more than
Answer: (c) 30
IS 1905 limits the effective slenderness ratio of load-bearing masonry walls/columns to around 27; among the given options, 30 is closest.
Q17.To make one cubic metre of 1:2:4 by volume concrete, volume of coarse aggregate required is
Answer: (b) 0.85 m3
For 1:2:4 concrete, dry volume ≈ 1.54 m³ per m³ of wet concrete; coarse aggregate share (4/7) works out to about 0.85 m³.
Q18.Surkhi is added to lime mortar to
Answer: (d) Impart hydraulicity
Surkhi (burnt clay/brick powder) reacts with fat lime to give it hydraulic (water-setting) properties.
Q19.Minimum reinforcement required in design of slabs is
Answer: (b) 0.15 per cent
0.15% of the gross cross-section is the traditional minimum slab reinforcement (mild steel) requirement.
Q20.In a rectangular beam section subjected to torsion, maximum shear stress occurs
Answer: (b) At the middle of wider face
For a rectangular section under torsion, St. Venant's theory places maximum shear stress at the middle of the longer (wider) face.
Q21.Lateral ties provided in a column prevent
Answer: (b) Compression
Lateral ties confine the core and restrain the longitudinal bars, letting the column develop its full compressive capacity.
Q22.In limit state design of concrete structures, the maximum limit imposed by IS codes on redistribution of moments in statically indeterminate beams is
Answer: (d) 30%
IS 456 Cl. 37.1.1 permits redistribution of moments up to a maximum of 30% in limit state design.
Q23.Two footings, one circular and other square, are founded in pure clay. The diameter of the circular footing is the same as the side of the square footing. The ratio of their net ultimate bearing capacities is
Answer: (a) Near unity
Skempton's bearing capacity factor Nc for square and circular footings in clay are very close (≈6.2), so the ratio of ultimate bearing capacities is nearly unity.
Q24.A raft of size 10 m x 10 m is founded at a depth of 5 m in a deposit of clay with undrained shear strength of 30 kN/m². With a factor of safety of 2.5, the net safe bearing capacity will be
Answer: (b) 79.2 kN/m²
Using qnet(ult) = 5.14×Cu×shape and depth factors for the 10m×10m raft at 5m depth, and dividing by FS=2.5, gives a net safe bearing capacity close to 79.2 kN/m².
Q25.Group efficiency of a pile group
Answer: (c) May be less than 100% or more than 100% depending upon the type of soil
Pile group efficiency varies with soil type — it can exceed 100% in dense cohesionless soil (densification) or fall below it in cohesive soil (overlapping stress zones).
Q26.Length of a rectangular sedimentation tank should not be more than (B = width of tank)
Answer: (c) 4B
Standard practice limits a rectangular sedimentation tank's length to about 4 times its width (L ≤ 4B) for even flow distribution.
Q27.Dissolved oxygen level in natural unpolluted waters at normal temperature is found to be of the order of
Answer: (b) 10 mg/L
Dissolved oxygen in natural, unpolluted water at normal temperature approaches saturation, on the order of 8-10 mg/L.
Q28.Product of H⁺ ions and OH⁻ ions in a stronger alkali is
Answer: (d) 10⁻¹⁴
The ionic product of water, Kw = [H+][OH-], is a constant equal to 10⁻¹⁴ at 25°C regardless of whether the solution is acidic or alkaline.
Q29.Turbidity is measured on
Answer: (a) Standard silica scale
Turbidity is traditionally measured against a standard silica scale (e.g. Jackson Candle method); colour, not turbidity, uses the platinum-cobalt scale.
Q30.The most common cause of acidity in water is
Answer: (a) Carbon dioxide
Dissolved carbon dioxide forming carbonic acid is the most common natural cause of acidity in water.
Q31.Lacey's regime scour depth is given by (q = discharge per unit width, f = silt factor)
Answer: (c) 1.35(q²/f)^(1/3)
Lacey's regime scour depth formula is R = 1.35 × (q²/f)^(1/3), where q is discharge per unit width and f is the silt factor.
Q32.In a siphon aqueduct, the most severe condition of uplift on the floor occurs when
Answer: (b) Canal is dry and drain is at high flood level
Uplift on a siphon aqueduct's floor is worst when the canal (which normally loads the barrel from above) is empty while the drain outside is at high flood, maximising net upward pressure.
Q33.Duty is largest
Answer: (b) On the field
Duty is smallest at the head of the main canal (conveyance losses mean more water is needed there) and largest right on the field, where none of those losses remain to be accounted for.
Q34.Water utilizable by plants is available in soils mainly in the form of
Answer: (b) Capillary water
Capillary water, held by surface tension in the soil pores just above the water table, is the main form of moisture available for plant uptake.
Q35.According to Khosla's theory, the exit gradient in the absence of a downstream cutoff is
Answer: (c) Infinity
Without a downstream cutoff, Khosla's theory shows the exit gradient at the toe mathematically approaches infinity, which is exactly why a cutoff is essential there.
Q36.A divide wall is provided
Answer: (a) At right angle to axis of weir
A divide wall runs at right angles to the weir's axis, separating the weir bay from the under-sluice bay.
Q37.If the R.L's of canal bed level and high flood level of drainage are 212.0 m and 210.0 m respectively, then cross drainage work will be
Answer: (a) Aqueduct
Since the canal bed (212 m) is above the drain's high flood level (210 m), the canal can simply cross over the drain in a trough — an aqueduct.
Q38.Water stored in a reservoir below minimum pool level is called
Answer: (b) Dead storage
Water held below the minimum drawdown (pool) level, unavailable for normal release, is called dead storage.
Q39.Horizontal distances obtained by tacheometric observations
Answer: (d) Do not require slope and tension correction
Once reduced through the standard tacheometric formula (D = kS·cos²θ), the horizontal distance obtained doesn't need the further slope/tension corrections that taped measurements require.
Q40.The shape of a vertical curve generally provided is
Answer: (b) Parabolic
Vertical curves in road alignment are conventionally designed as simple parabolas for a smooth, easily-computed transition.
Q41.Major resisting force in a gravity dam is
Answer: (c) Self weight of dam
A gravity dam relies primarily on its own self-weight to resist overturning and sliding forces.
Q42.For the upstream face of an earthen dam most adverse condition for stability of slope is
Answer: (a) Sudden draw down
Sudden drawdown removes the stabilising external water pressure on the upstream face while internal pore pressure hasn't yet dissipated — the most critical condition for that face.
Q43.Euler's formula states that the buckling load P for a column of length L, both ends hinged, whose least moment of inertia and modulus of elasticity of the material of the column are I and E respectively, is given by
Answer: (b) P = π²EI/L²
Euler's buckling load for a both-ends-hinged column is P = π²EI/L².
Q44.Maximum deflection of a simply supported beam of length L with a central concentrated load W is
Answer: (c) WL³/48EI
Maximum deflection of a simply supported beam with a central point load W is WL³/48EI.
Q45.Maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a simply supported beam occurs
Answer: (c) under the load
For a single moving point load on a simply supported beam, the absolute maximum bending moment occurs directly under the load (when it sits at midspan).
Q46.Portal bracing in truss bridge is used to
Answer: (a) Transfer load from top of end posts to bearings
Portal bracing carries the lateral (wind) load collected by the top lateral system down through the end posts to the bearings.
Q47.Efficiency of a riveted joint having minimum pitch as per IS:800 is
Answer: (a) 40%
At minimum rivet pitch (holes closest together, most material removed per unit length), a simple riveted joint's efficiency is at its lowest — commonly worked out to around 40% in textbook examples.
Q48.Bolts are most suitable to carry
Answer: (a) Shear
Ordinary bolts are most efficient carrying shear; they're a poor choice for direct tension or bending due to thread stress concentration and prying action.
Q49.Slenderness ratio of lacing bars should not exceed
Answer: (c) 145
IS 800 limits the slenderness ratio of lacing bars to 145.
Q50.A butt weld is specified by
Answer: (a) Effective throat thickness
A butt weld's strength is governed by, and specified in terms of, its effective throat thickness.
Q51.Strain energy of a member may be equated to
Answer: (c) ½ × stress × strain × volume of member
Strain energy stored in an elastic member equals ½ × stress × strain × volume of the member.
Q52.Two standard angles 50×50×6 (ISA 5050) are placed back to back touching each other to form a column 3 m long. Assuming ends are hinged, E = 210 GN/m² and proportional limit stress 210 MN/m², the critical load will be
Answer: (b) 40 kN
For the back-to-back ISA 50×50×6 column (L=3m, hinged-hinged), Euler's formula with the section's least moment of inertia gives a critical load of about 40 kN.
Q53.Most accurate method of finding the average depth of rainfall over an area is
Answer: (a) Isohyetal method
The isohyetal method, which draws actual rainfall contours accounting for topography, is considered the most accurate way to find average rainfall over an area.
Q54.Gantry girders are designed to resist
Answer: (c) Lateral, longitudinal and vertical loads
Gantry girders carry the crane's vertical wheel loads plus lateral surge and longitudinal (braking/traction) loads together.
Q55.As per IS code, the maximum bending moment for design of purlins can be taken as (W = total distributed load including wind load; L = centre-to-centre distance of supports)
Answer: (c) WL/10
IS code practice takes the maximum design bending moment for continuous purlins as WL/10, less than the simple-span WL/8 due to continuity.
Q56.Lug angles
Answer: (a) Are used to reduce the length of connection
A lug angle is added to an under-length connecting angle specifically to shorten the overall connection length needed.
Q57.Battens provided for a compression member shall be designed to carry a transverse shear equal to:
Answer: (a) 2.5% of axial force in member
IS 800 requires both lacing and battens to be designed for a transverse shear of 2.5% of the axial force in the member.
Q58.Negative skin friction on piles may occur when
Answer: (b) Soil settlement is greater than pile settlement
Negative skin friction occurs when the surrounding soil settles more than the pile, dragging the pile down and adding load instead of resisting it.
Q59.Skin friction and end bearing resistance of piles can be obtained in a separated way by
Answer: (c) Cyclic pile load test
A cyclic pile load test helps separate shaft friction (which mobilises fully early and doesn't grow further) from end bearing (which keeps developing) across repeated load cycles.
Q60.In case of 2-way slab, the limiting deflection is
Answer: (b) Primarily a function of short span
In a two-way slab, deflection behaviour is governed primarily by the shorter span, which carries the greater share of the load.
Q61.Allowable deflection in reinforced concrete beams shall not exceed
Answer: (a) Span/250
IS 456 sets the overall (including long-term/creep) allowable deflection limit for RC beams at span/250.
Q62.In limit state design of concrete structures strain distribution is assumed to be
Answer: (a) Linear
Strain distribution across a section is always assumed linear (plane sections remain plane); it's the stress block, not the strain, that's taken as parabolic-rectangular.
Q63.Reduction co-efficient of a reinforced concrete column with an effective length of 4.8 m and size 250x300 mm is
Answer: (b) 0.85
With Leff=4.8m and least dimension D=250mm, IS 456's Cr = 1.25 - Leff/(48D) = 1.25 - 4800/12000 = 0.85.
Q64.Drops are provided in flat slab to resist
Answer: (c) Shear
Drop panels near columns in a flat slab exist mainly to increase the section's capacity against punching shear.
Q65.If the loaded length of span in metres of a railway steel bridge carrying a single track is 6 m, the impact factor is taken as
Answer: (c) Between 0.5 and 1.0
For a short loaded length like 6 m on a single-track steel railway bridge, the impact factor is high, falling in the range between 0.5 and 1.0.
Q66.A hill road is one which passes through a terrain with a cross slope of
Answer: (c) 25 to 60%
IRC terrain classification places cross slopes of 25-60% in the mountainous/hill category.
Q67.The camber for hill roads in case of bituminous surfacing is
Answer: (c) 3%
Hill roads with bituminous surfacing are typically given a steeper camber (around 3%) than plain-terrain roads, for faster drainage.
Q68.The W-index will always be
Answer: (c) less than the φ-index
W-index strips out initial losses separately, so it works out consistently lower than or equal to the average φ-index for the same storm.
Q69.An aquifer which is underlain by an impermeable layer at the bottom and not confined at the top is known as
Answer: (b) unconfined aquifer
An aquifer bounded below by an impermeable layer but open (unconfined) at the top, with a free water table, is an unconfined aquifer.
Q70.Water existing in capillary zone is a part of
Answer: (d) vadose water
Capillary water sits within the vadose (unsaturated) zone, above the water table.
Q71.Disinfection of water results in
Answer: (c) Killing of disease bacteria
The main purpose of disinfecting water is to kill disease-causing pathogens — not to sterilise it completely or remove turbidity/hardness.
Q72.Period of cleaning of slow sand filters is about
Answer: (c) 2-3 months
Slow sand filters run for extended periods before the clogged schmutzdecke layer needs scraping — typically every 2-3 months.
Q73.Pathogens can be killed by
Answer: (b) Chlorination
Chlorination is the standard method used specifically to kill pathogens in water treatment.
Q74.If BOD of a town is 20000 kg/day and BoD per capita per day is 0.05 Kg, then population equivalent of town is
Answer: (d) 400000
Population equivalent = total BOD load ÷ per-capita BOD = 20000 ÷ 0.05 = 400,000.
Q75.For normal sludge, the value of sludge index for Indian conditions is
Answer: (b) 50 to 150
A sludge volume index of roughly 50-150 is considered normal, well-settling sludge under Indian conditions.
Q76.In a single-point method of finding mean velocity across a vertical, the velocity is measured above the stream bed at a depth (d) of
Answer: (b) 0.6d
The single-point method for mean velocity in a vertical takes the reading at 0.6 times the depth below the surface.
Q77.If N is the speed of a current meter in revolutions per second, the velocity measured by it is proportional to
Answer: (b) N
The standard current-meter rating equation (V = aN + b) makes velocity approximately directly proportional to the rotation speed N.
Q78.Maximum width of a vehicle recommended by IRC is
Answer: (b) 2.44 m
IRC recommends a maximum vehicle width of 2.44 m on Indian roads.
Q79.Stopping sight distance is always
Answer: (a) less than overtaking sight distance
Stopping sight distance is always shorter than overtaking sight distance, since overtaking needs room to accelerate past another vehicle and return safely.
Q80.Toughness index is the ratio of
Answer: (d) plasticity index to flow index
Toughness index is defined as the ratio of plasticity index to flow index (It = Ip/If).
Q81.A sample of clay has a natural water content of 64%. Its liquid limit was found to be 75% and plastic limit 35%. Its liquidity index will be
Answer: (b) 72.5%
Liquidity index = (w - PL)/(LL - PL) = (64-35)/(75-35) = 29/40 = 72.5%.
Q82.Time factor for a particular average degree of consolidation
Answer: (a) always depends upon the distribution of initial excess hydrostatic pressure with depth
The standard time factor-degree of consolidation relationship is derived assuming a particular initial excess pore pressure distribution with depth, so it depends on that distribution.
Q83.A clay deposit suffers a total settlement of 5 cm with one-way drainage. With two-way drainage the total settlement will be
Answer: (d) 5 cm
Total (ultimate) consolidation settlement depends on the load and soil compressibility, not on the number of drainage faces — two-way drainage only makes it happen faster, not larger; it stays 5 cm.
Q84.The nearest object from a raingauge should be at a minimum distance equal to
Answer: (b) Twice its height
Standard practice keeps obstructions at least twice their own height away from a raingauge, so they don't shield it from rainfall.
Q85.Any cyclic trend present in rainfall data can be ascertained from
Answer: (b) moving average curve
A moving average curve smooths short-term scatter in rainfall records, making any underlying cyclic trend easier to see.
Q86.Rates of rainfall for half-hour periods of a 3 hr storm are 1.6, 3.6, 5.0, 2.8, 2.2, 1.0 cm/hr. The corresponding surface run-off is estimated at 3.6 cm. The φ-index will be
Answer: (a) 1.6 cm/hr
Testing φ=1.6 cm/hr: excess rainfall over the periods exceeding it sums to exactly 3.6 cm, matching the given runoff — so φ-index = 1.6 cm/hr.
Q87.Maximum average rainfall intensity at a given location
Answer: (b) Decreases with increase in duration
Rainfall intensity-duration relationships always show average intensity decreasing as the duration considered gets longer.
Q88.In the quadrantal bearing system, a whole-circle bearing of 293°30' can be expressed as
Answer: (b) N66°30'W
A whole-circle bearing of 293°30' falls in the NW quadrant; reduced bearing = N(360°-293°30')W = N66°30'W.
Q89.Adjustment of horizontal cross hair is required particularly when the instrument is used, for
Answer: (a) Levelling
An out-of-adjustment horizontal cross-hair directly biases staff readings, so its correct adjustment matters most for levelling work.
Q90.Following sights are taken on a 'turning point'
Answer: (c) Foresight and Backsight
A turning point is where a foresight closes one instrument setup and a backsight opens the next — both are taken there.
Q91.Rise and Fall method of levelling provides a complete check on
Answer: (d) All of the above
The Rise and Fall method checks every reading taken (backsight, intermediate sight and foresight alike), unlike the Height of Instrument method.
Q92.Size of a plane table is
Answer: (b) 600 mm x 750 mm
A standard plane table is commonly cited as 750mm × 600mm (drawing board size).
Q93.Composting and lagooning are the methods of
Answer: (b) Sludge disposal
Composting and lagooning are methods used for final disposal of treated sludge.
Q94.Width of ballast section for Broad Gauge is
Answer: (c) 3.35m
Standard ballast section width for Broad Gauge formation is about 3.35 m.
Q95.Composite sleeper index is the index of
Answer: (d) Wear resistance and Hardness
Composite sleeper index combines a timber's wear resistance and hardness into one rating.
Q96.Normal maximum cant permissible in Metre Gauge is
Answer: (b) 90 mm
Maximum permissible cant on Metre Gauge track is 90 mm (lower than Broad Gauge's 165 mm).
Q97.A series of closely spaced contour lines represents a
Answer: (a) Steep slope
Closely spaced contour lines indicate rapid elevation change over a short distance — a steep slope.
Q98.The instrument used for accurate centering in plane table survey is
Answer: (c) Plumbing fork
A plumbing fork with a plumb bob is the instrument specifically used to centre a plane table accurately over a ground station.
Q99.Two point problem and three point problem are methods of
Answer: (a) resection
The two-point and three-point problems are both classic plane-table resection techniques.
Q100.Bowditch rule is applied to
Answer: (b) A closed traverse for adjustment of closing error
Bowditch's rule distributes a closed traverse's closing error across all the legs in proportion to their length.
Take this paper as a timed test: 100 questions, 90 minutes, +2 / −1. The 2016 paper is free; the full pack has all 5.
Start the timed test12 subjects, 20 MCQs each, scored instantly with explanations. Good for daily topic-wise revision.
Pick a subject ›2 papers free1,182 real questions from twelve previous-year WBPSC Assistant Engineer (Civil) papers, timed and scored +2 / −2/3 like the real exam.
Start a paper ›1 set free100 questions on the RCC code, each answered with the exact IS 456 clause.
Start the free set ›