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WBPSC AE Civil 2001 question paper with answers

All 98 questions from the WBPSC AE Civil 2001 paper (Assistant Civil Engineer — 2001). Answers and explanations for the first 10 are free below; the rest are in the full previous-papers pack, along with timed practice and scoring.

PaperAssistant Civil Engineer — 2001
Questions98
Marking (current pattern)+2 for a right answer, −2/3 for a wrong one
Answers on this pageQ1–Q10 (rest in the full pack)

Questions

Q1.In case of mild steel, the value of the stress at elastic limit is

  1. Same as that at limit of proportionality
  2. More than that at limit of proportionality
  3. Less than that at limit of proportionality
  4. Independent and cannot be compared with that at limit of proportionality
Show answer

Answer: (b) More than that at limit of proportionality

On the tensile stress–strain curve of mild steel the first landmark is the limit of proportionality, the highest stress up to which σ ∝ ε and Hooke's law holds. A little beyond it lies the elastic limit — the highest stress from which the bar still returns to its original length on unloading. Between the two the curve has begun to bend, so the material is no longer linear, but it is still elastic: strain is fully recoverable.

Q2.The principal stresses at a point are 600 and 400 kg/cm² respectively, both tensile. The magnitude of normal and tangential stresses inclined at 45° to the plane on which the normal stress is 600 kg/cm² are respectively.

  1. 500 and 0 (zero) kg/cm²
  2. 400 and 0 (zero) kg/cm²
  3. 1000 and 0 (zero) kg/cm²
  4. 500 and 100 kg/cm²
Show answer

Answer: (d) 500 and 100 kg/cm²

With σ1 = 600 and σ2 = 400 kg/cm² (both tensile, no shear on the principal planes), the stresses on a plane whose normal is inclined at θ to the direction of σ1 are σn = (σ1+σ2)/2 + (σ1−σ2)/2 · cos2θ, τ = (σ1−σ2)/2 · sin2θ At θ = 45° the cosine term vanishes and the sine term is a maximum: the normal stress drops to the mean of the two principal stresses while the shear stress reaches its greatest value, the radius of the Mohr circle.

Q3.Point of contra-flexure is the point where

  1. The B.M. is zero
  2. The S.F. is zero
  3. The B.M. Charges sign
  4. The S.F. change sign
Show answer

Answer: (c) The B.M. Charges sign

The point of contraflexure (or inflexion) is where the beam changes its curvature — the deflected shape turns from sagging to hogging. Since curvature is proportional to bending moment (M = EI·d²y/dx²), that is exactly the section at which the bending moment changes sign.

Q4.A cantilever beam of leangth 'l' is loaded with a u.d.l. of w' per unit length over a length of 'a' form the fixed end. The slop and deflection at the free end are respectively.

  1. wa³/6EI and wa⁴/8EI + wa³(L-a)/EI
  2. wa²/6EI and wa³/8EI + wa³(L-a)/EI
  3. wa³/3EI and wa⁴/4EI + wa³(L-a)/3EI
  4. wa³/4EI and wa⁴/4EI + wa³(L-a)/3EI
Show answer

Answer: (a) wa³/6EI and wa⁴/8EI + wa³(L-a)/EI

Only the loaded length a from the fixed end bends; the remaining (l−a) of the cantilever carries no bending moment, so it stays straight and simply rotates rigidly about the end of the loaded portion. Treat the loaded part as a cantilever of length a with UDL w: θa = wa³/6EI , ya = wa⁴/8EI Beyond that section the slope cannot change, so the slope at the free end is the same wa³/6EI.

Q5.A compression member tends to buckle in the direction of

  1. Axis of load
  2. Perpendicular to the axis of load
  3. Minimum cross section
  4. Least radius of gyration
Show answer

Answer: (d) Least radius of gyration

Euler's crippling load is Pcr = π²EI/le². Writing I = Ar² gives Pcr = π²EA/(le/r)², so the strut fails about whichever axis makes the slenderness ratio le/r largest. With the same effective length about both axes, that is the axis of least radius of gyration — and the column buckles in the plane perpendicular to that axis.

Q6.[Refers to Fig.1: a symmetric triangular/lattice truss with vertical loads 1000N, 2000N, 2000N, 1000N applied, supports at both ends] The force in the member AB of the loaded truss shown in Fig. 1, is

  1. 3000 N (Tensile)
  2. 3000 N (compressive)
  3. 6000 N (Tensile)
  4. 60000 N (compressive)
Show answer

Answer: (d) 60000 N (compressive)

The truss is symmetrical and the loading (1000 + 2000 + 2000 + 1000 = 6000 N) is symmetrical, so each support carries 3000 N. AB is the end raker springing from the support. Take the free body of joint A: only the reaction, the raker AB and the horizontal bottom chord meet there.

Q7.A moving load of uniform filtensity w is spread over a length longer than the span L of a beam AB simply supported at the ends, when the tail of the load moving left to right reaches the point P, the maximum shear force at P is

  1. w.x(L-X)/L
  2. Wx²/L
  3. W(L-X)²/2L
  4. W.X(L-X)/2
Show answer

Answer: (c) W(L-X)²/2L

For a UDL longer than the span, the shear at a section P (distance x from A) is greatest when the load occupies one side only of P. With the tail of the load just reaching P as the load travels left to right, the load covers P to B, a length (L−x), and the shear at P equals the reaction at A.

Q8.A beam AB of length 10 m having both ends fixed is acted upon by a concentrated load of 10 tonnes at C at a distance of 4m from A on the beam. The B.M. at C is

  1. Sagging and of magnitude 11.52 t.m
  2. Hogging and of magnitude 11.52 t.m
  3. Sagging and of magnitude 11.4 t.m
  4. Hoghing and of magnitude 9.6 t.m
Show answer

Answer: (a) Sagging and of magnitude 11.52 t.m

For a fixed beam with a point load W at distance a from A and b from B, the fixed-end moments are MA = Wab²/L² , MB = Wa²b/L² The bending moment under the load is the free (simply supported) moment Wab/L reduced by the fixing-moment ordinate read at C from the straight line joining MA and MB. Because the free moment is the larger, the net moment at C is sagging.

Q9.[Refers to Fig.2: a portal frame ABCD, EI=constant, member lengths marked 4m] In the portal frame shown in Fig. 2, the end A is fixed and D is hinged. The distribution factors at C are in the ratio of

  1. 0.5 : 0.5
  2. 6.25 : 0.75
  3. 0.67 : 0.33
  4. 0.57 : 0.43
Show answer

Answer: (d) 0.57 : 0.43

Distribution factors are proportional to the rotational stiffness k of each member meeting at the joint. At C two members frame in — beam CB and column CD: CB has its far end B connected to the rest of the rigid frame, so use the full stiffness k = 4EI/L. CD has its far end D hinged, so use the reduced stiffness k = 3EI/L. With EI constant and both members 4 m long the relative stiffnesses are 4 and 3.

Q10.[Refers to Fig.3: an overhanging beam] The slope at the support and of the overhanging beam shown in Fig. 3 is given by

  1. Wl²/12EI
  2. Wl²/24EI
  3. 5Wl²/18EI
  4. 5Wl²/0EI
Show answer

Answer: (b) Wl²/24EI

The overhang carries no load, so it contributes no bending moment to the span: the portion between the supports behaves exactly as a simply supported beam under its uniformly distributed load, and the unloaded overhang simply follows the tangent at the support. For a simply supported span l with UDL w per unit length the end slope is wl³/24EI.

Answers to Q11–Q98 are in the full pack

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Q11.A 10 mm thick plate is connected with 12 mm thick plate by 5 mm fillet weld. Allowing permissible shear stress of 101 MPa in the weld, strength of weld p mm length is

  1. 353.5 N
  2. 505 N
  3. 707.0 N
  4. 200 N

Q12.Horizontal stiffness are generally provided when the ratio of clear depth to the thickness of web exceeds

  1. 50
  2. 150
  3. 100
  4. 200

Q13.Lug angles are

  1. Angles of unequal sizes
  2. Angles with extra reinforcement to take bending moment
  3. Angles with holes drilled for rivrets
  4. Angles used to reduce the length of connection

Q14.Difficulty in finishing of concrete surface is experienced when the slump of concrete exceeds

  1. 10 mm
  2. 25 mm
  3. 40 mm
  4. 50 mm

Q15.The overall depth of a wall footing is 560 mm and effective depth is 500 mm. The width of the footing is 3000 mm. The spacing of 10 mm bars for longitudinal reinforcemtn is

  1. 90 mm
  2. 45 mm
  3. 100 mm
  4. 50 mm

Q16.The spacings of counterforts depends on

  1. Height of the wall
  2. Relative cost of steel and concrete
  3. Allowable unit pressure of soil
  4. All of the above

Q17.Post tensioning is common in structures like

  1. Electric poles
  2. slabs
  3. Small water tanks
  4. Bridges

Q18.Characteristic load means that value of the load

  1. Which is not expected to fall by more than 5%
  2. Which is not expected to fall by more that 5%
  3. Which has 95% probalilit of not being excecded during the life of the structure
  4. Which has 85% probability or not being excesded during the life of the structure

Q19.The effective depth of a T beam for heavy loads is taken as

  1. 1/10 of the span
  2. 1/12 of the span
  3. 1/15 of the span
  4. 1/18 of the span

Q20.In the active state of plastic equilibrium behind a retaining wall the wall

  1. Moves away from the backfill
  2. Moves towards the backfill
  3. Does not move in any direction
  4. Sinks only

Q21.If is the single of slope with the horizontal, and φ angle of shearing resistance, F, the factor of safety against sliding for a mass of soil bounded by a sloping surface is given by

  1. tan'p' tan i
  2. tan i / tan p
  3. tan p / tan i
  4. tan(p+i) / tan p

Q22.Negative skin friction on pile may occur when

  1. The pile is pulled up
  2. The soil around the pile is still
  3. The pile is a bored pile
  4. The soil around the pile is recently filled

Q23.The intensity of vertical pressure at a depth Z directly below a varticll point load, P, is given by

  1. 0.4775P/Z
  2. 0.4775P/Z²
  3. 0.4775P/Z³
  4. 0.4775P/√Z

Q24.The maximum settlement of raft foundation on sand should be limited to the following values:

  1. 20 to 40 mm
  2. 40 to 65 mm
  3. 65 to 80 mm
  4. 80 to 10 mm

Q25.The minimum gradient that is to be provided on a road is

  1. 0.33%
  2. 0.5%
  3. 3.33%
  4. 5.0%

Q26.The absolute minimum radius of horizontal curve is

  1. V²/27.3
  2. V²/8.44
  3. V²/18.9
  4. V²/17

Q27.The compensated gradient on a horizontal curve of 100 m radius, if the rulling gradient orovided on the road is 4% is

  1. 2.7%
  2. 3%
  3. 3.25%
  4. 4%

Q28.The total reaction time for an average dirver for normal situation is

  1. 5 Secs
  2. 4 Secs
  3. 3 Secs
  4. 2 Secs

Q29.The grain-size distribution of filter material for highway drainage is based on piping ratio

  1. Less than
  2. Less than 8
  3. Less than 10
  4. Less than 12

Q30.The nominal size of modular bricks is

  1. 25×13×7 cm
  2. 20×10×5 cm
  3. 19×9×9 cm
  4. 20×10×10 cm

Q31.Rapid hardening portland cement contains

  1. more C3S
  2. more C3S
  3. more C3A
  4. more C4AF

Q32.Anti-siphonage pipe is used to

  1. Provide connection with soil pipe
  2. Provide ventilation of air in the toilet
  3. Prevent foul smell from entering the toilet
  4. Perserve the water-seal of traps

Q33.Critical path is PERT network is the one for which

  1. Most likely time estimate of the activities largest
  2. Optimistic time estimate of the activities is th[e least]
  3. Expected time estimate of the activities is th[e...]
  4. [obscured in scan - pessimistic time estimate, likely]

Q34.A semi-circular arch is 30 cm thick, 60 cm wide and has a span of 2m. The quantity of arch-mascnry is

  1. 1.30 cum
  2. 0.98 cum
  3. 0.81 cum
  4. 0.65 cum

Q35.The megmetic bearing of a line AB is S28°E. If the declination at the location is 8° west, the true bearing of the line AB will be

  1. S 28°E
  2. S 20°E
  3. S 36°E
  4. S 30°E

Q36.In a 4m levelling staff, the thickness of the graduation of the scale

  1. 1 mm
  2. 5 mm
  3. 10 mm
  4. 20 mm

Q37.In the stadia method of techemetric surveying, the horizontal distance D, form the vertical axis of the instrument to the staff station is given by (When K1 and K2 appropriate e constants and S is he staff intercept)

  1. D = K1S+K2
  2. D = K1+K2S
  3. D = (K1+K2)S
  4. D = K1+K2S

Q38.A soil sample has a porosity of 40%. The specific gravity of solid particles is 2.70. The dry density of the soil will be

  1. 1.82 gm/cc
  2. 1.25 gm/cc
  3. 1.37 gm/cc
  4. 1.62 gm/cc

Q39.Identify the maximum uniformly graded soil from the uniformity coefficients of the soils given below:

  1. 10
  2. 15
  3. 20
  4. 1.3

Q40.For a coarses and with void ratio of 0.68 and specific gravity of soil solids of 2.68, critical hydraulic gradient will be

  1. 0.10
  2. 1.00
  3. 0.11
  4. 1.10

Q41.The optimum moisture content of a soil is 17%. Its specific gravity is 2.68. The theoretical maximum dry density of the soil corresponding zero air voids at optimum water content is

  1. 1.84 g/cm³
  2. -00 g/cm²
  3. 3.68 g/cm³
  4. 1.5 g/cm³

Q42.A flow is steady if (V=Velocity, P=Pressure, O=density and T and t are respectively Thermodynamic temperature and time)

  1. δv/δt = δp/δt + δp/δt
  2. δv/δt = p/δt + δT/δt
  3. δv/δt = δp/δt + δT/δt
  4. δv/δt = δp/δt = δp/δt = δT/δt = 0

Q43.In an enclosed flow of a liquid having no free surface, if p is the intensity of pressure at a point in the field, Z, the elevation of the point over an arbitrarily chosen datum v, the velocity of flow, γ, the specific weight, the piezometirc head, h is equal to

  1. P/γ + Z
  2. P/γ + v²/2g
  3. Z + v²/2g
  4. P/γ + Z + v²/2g

Q44.Flow of water in a pipe of diameter 3000 mm can be measured by

  1. Venturimeter
  2. Rotameter
  3. Pilot tube
  4. Nozzle

Q45.A pelton wheel is

  1. Inward flow impules turbine
  2. Outward flow impulse turbine
  3. Axial flow impulse turbine
  4. Outward flow reaction tubine

Q46.Mixed cropping is eliminated, where

  1. Irrigation is not ensured
  2. Irrigation is assured
  3. Where trained farmers are not available
  4. When agricultural known-how is not available

Q47.Consumptive Irrigation Requirement (CIR), if Cu consumptive use and Rs, the effective and Rs, the effective rainfal is given be

  1. CIR = Cu - Re
  2. CIR = Cu + 1.5 Re
  3. CIR = CU + Re
  4. CIR = Cu - Re + water lost as per colation

Q48.A crop that takes more than 4 months to mature is called

  1. Long crop
  2. Solid crop
  3. Hard crop
  4. Cash crop

Q49.Average delta of a rice crop is mearly

  1. 30 cm
  2. 60 cm
  3. 90 cm
  4. 120 cm

Q50.The delta for a crop when its duty is 864 hectares/cumecs in the field, the base peirod being 120 days, is

  1. 30 cm
  2. 60 cm
  3. 90 cm
  4. 120 cm

Q51.Isohyets are

  1. Areas of equal precipitation
  2. Lines of equal precipitation on maps
  3. Lines of equal temperature on maps
  4. Lines of equal barometric pressures on maps

Q52.A hydrograph is a plot of

  1. Precipilation against time
  2. Direct run-off against time
  3. Stream flow against time
  4. Surface run-off agaitns time

Q53.A self recording rain gauge

  1. Records the cloud cover
  2. Records the rainfall intensity
  3. Records the cumulative depth of rainfall
  4. Records none of the above

Q54.Run off is measured in

  1. Metres
  2. Cubic metres
  3. Cubic metres/hectare
  4. Cubic metres/sec

Q55.A channel is said to be in a state of true reigme, if the flow is such that there is

  1. No sitting
  2. No scouring
  3. Sitting and no scouring
  4. Both sitting and scouring

Q56.Where seepage loss is as high as 50% the earthen surface of the channel should be lined with

  1. Brick using cement mortar
  2. Tiles using cement mortar
  3. 10 cm thick cement lime concrete
  4. 10 cm thick cement concrete

Q57.Fluming of the canal in cross drainage works means

  1. Contracting the waterway of the canal
  2. Widening the water way of the canal
  3. Allowing the canal water and frain water to intermingle with each other
  4. Allowing the canal to flow underneath the drain

Q58.A diversion head work is constructed to

  1. Facilitate the silt entry into the canal
  2. Lower water level in the river
  3. Regulate the intake of water into the canal
  4. Check the erosion of river bed

Q59.Hydraulic jump occurs when a steep channel slope

  1. Suddenly turns flat
  2. Gradually turns flat
  3. Suddenly becomes steeper
  4. Gradually becomes steeper

Q60.A protection work at the downsteam and of ta weir in form of blocks of concrete or mesonry is called

  1. Talus
  2. Baffles
  3. Scour
  4. Flash boards

Q61.Dams used to raise the river water level to feed on offtaking canal is called.

  1. Storage dams
  2. Diversion dams
  3. Detention dams
  4. Debris dams

Q62.In case of a gravity dam, the main overturning force is

  1. Self weight of the dam
  2. Wind pressure
  3. Water pressure
  4. Uplift pressure

Q63.The best type of structures for dams to resist earthquake shocks

  1. Earthen dams
  2. Rock-fill dams
  3. Solid masonry gravity dams
  4. Hollow masonry gravity dams

Q64.The value of acceleration due to earthquake in terms of 'g' the acceleration due to gravity, in ectremely scismic regions for design of gravity dams is equal to

  1. 0.1g
  2. 0.15g
  3. 0.2g
  4. 0.3g

Q65.The river training work for the primary purpose of flood control is called

  1. High Water Training Work
  2. Low Water Training Work
  3. Mean Water Training Work
  4. Guide Banks

Q66.If L is the length between the abuments, the minimum length of the upstream part of the guide bank is

  1. 1-1L
  2. 1.3L
  3. 1.5L
  4. 1.6L

Q67.A facing of dry stone pitching laid on sloping face of earth to maintain the slope in position or to protect it from erosion, is called.

  1. Revetment
  2. Embankment
  3. Lining
  4. Reinforcement

Q68.In areas likely to be water-logged, the prefer able type of irrigation is

  1. Canal irrigation
  2. Flow irrigation
  3. Lift irrigation
  4. Storage irrigation

Q69.Removal of soluble salts by downward movement of water through the soil is called

  1. Sedimertation
  2. Leaching
  3. Draining
  4. Washing

Q70.Water logging leads to

  1. Growth of water weeds
  2. Plant discases
  3. Accumilation of salts in the surface layer
  4. All of the above

Q71.If waste water has a phovalue of 6.5, it means that

  1. 6.5 mg/litre of solids are present
  2. It is acidic
  3. It is allaline
  4. It is caustic

Q72.As per norms 45 litres of water per person per day is provided in case of

  1. Hotel
  2. Hostel
  3. Nursing Home
  4. Office buildings

Q73.In waste water, the solids which and decomposed, are

  1. Organic
  2. Inorganic
  3. Demostic
  4. Dissolved

Q74.The source of surface water for supply to a community may be

  1. A stream
  2. A natural pond
  3. A lake
  4. Any of the above

Q75.The trap efficiency of a reservoir depends on the

  1. Capacity-the reservoir
  2. Inflow of the reservoir
  3. Capacity-inflow ratio
  4. Capacity-outflow ratio

Q76.Specific yield of a well is

  1. Quantity of water that can be drawn from the well per unit time
  2. Totoal quantity of water available in the well at anytime
  3. Flow of water per unit time per unit area
  4. Quantity of water per unit time per unit area under unit depression head

Q77.In case of potable water, the permissible upper limit or chloride contents is

  1. 500 ppm
  2. 400 ppm
  3. 350 ppm
  4. 25 ppm

Q78.The permissible limit of arsenic concentration in domestic water supplies is

  1. 0.1 ppm
  2. 0.5 ppm
  3. 0.1 ppm
  4. 0.05 ppm

Q79.One of the usual parameters of pollution in domestic waste water is

  1. 3 day 20°C B.O.D
  2. 3 day 25°C B.O.D
  3. 5 day 20°C B.O.D
  4. 5 day 25°C B.O.D

Q80.Normal pH values in domestic waste water vary from

  1. 5 to 6
  2. 5.5 to 6.5
  3. 6 to 6.5
  4. 7 to 7.5

Q81.Activated carbon removes from water

  1. Iron
  2. organic matter
  3. Manganese
  4. All of the above

Q82.Which of the following is the best coagulant for removing colour?

  1. Lime
  2. Alum
  3. Ferrous Sulphate
  4. Sodium Chloride

Q83.Which one of the following is the first stage in the treatment of water?

  1. Filtration
  2. Disinfection
  3. Sedimentation
  4. Coagulation

Q84.Slow sand filters remove bacteria as much as

  1. 70 to 80%
  2. 80 to 90%
  3. 90 to 95%
  4. 98 to 99%

Q85.The suitable layout of a distribution system for irregularly growing town is

  1. Dead and system
  2. Grid iron system
  3. Radial system
  4. Ring system

Q86.The method which is most widely used for analysing and designing he pipes of all types of complex water distribution network is

  1. Equivalent pipe method
  2. Hardy-cross method
  3. Circle method
  4. Electric network analyser method

Q87.The type of value which is provided to regulate the flow of after through the pipelines is

  1. Air valve
  2. Sluice Valve
  3. Check valve
  4. Glove valve

Q88.A.G.I pipe has a coating of

  1. Lead
  2. Zinc
  3. Copper
  4. Aluminium

Q89.The function of gully trap is to

  1. Collect wash water from floors, kitchens and bath rooms
  2. Disconnect sullage drain from the main drainage system
  3. Prevent the entry of sewer gases into the house drain
  4. Remove the coarse particles of suit, sand etc. before entering into the building drain

Q90.Self cleansing valocity in sever is racchieved by

  1. Providing large diameter sewer pipe
  2. Providing minimum bends in sewer line
  3. Providing smooth surface of sewer pipe
  4. Providing adequate gradient to sewer line

Q91.The area of oxidation ponds is determined on the basis of the following approximate rule:

  1. 500 persons to one acre of pond area
  2. 1000 persons to one acre of pond area
  3. 1500 persons to one acre of pond area
  4. 2000 persons to one acre of pond area

Q92.The oxygen sag curve exhibits an important dharacteristic given by a point on the curve indicating

  1. Maximum D.O. deficti
  2. D.O. soturation concentration
  3. D.O. concentration
  4. No D.O. deficit

Q93.The rate of deoxygenation LD in a river may be expressed as

  1. rD = -K.L0.e^-kt
  2. rD = L0.e^-kt
  3. rD = L0/e^-kt
  4. rD = e^-kt/L0

Q94.A hand pump is a type of

  1. Centrifugal pump
  2. Reciprocating pump
  3. Rotary pump
  4. Jet pump

Q95.The size of centrifugal water pump is given by

  1. Hotsepower
  2. Impeller diameter
  3. Discharge
  4. Suction and delivery pipe diameter

Q96.Major source of carbon monoxide pollution is

  1. Water
  2. Tress
  3. Sunlight
  4. Automobiles

Q97.Cyclones are used for cleaning air by separation of

  1. Many types of dust
  2. Fine metallurgical fumes
  3. Organic vapours
  4. Organis Sulphides

Q98.In a town, garbade is produced at the rate of

  1. 150 gm
  2. 800 gm
  3. 450 gm
  4. 600 gm per head per day

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